--- title: Seeing the Father in Jesus url: https://jw-apologetics.app/arguments/john14-9-seen-the-father/ markdown: https://jw-apologetics.app/arguments/john14-9-seen-the-father.md type: argument perspective: Protestant (historic Nicene) response to Jehovah's Witness teaching topics: [Deity of Christ] challenges: [Jesus Is a Created Being] verses: [John 14:9, Hebrews 1:3, Colossians 2:9, Isaiah 40:18, John 14:8, Exodus 33:20, 2 Corinthians 3:7, John 14:28, Philippians 2:5, John 14:10, John 14:11, John 12:45, John 14:1] strength: Very Strong tone: Excellent attribution: Robert Bowman / D.A. Carson / Greg Sukert JW encounter comments added: '2026-04-03' last_reviewed: '2026-04-04' index: https://jw-apologetics.app/llms.txt --- # Seeing the Father in Jesus *John 14:9 / Hebrews 1:3 / Colossians 2:9* ## Doorstep Question > "In John 14:9, Jesus tells Philip, 'Whoever has seen me has seen the Father also.' Even the NWT keeps that wording. If Jesus is merely God's representative, how could seeing a representative be the same as seeing God himself? Isaiah 40:18 asks, 'To whom will you liken God?' — the answer is no one. Yet Jesus says seeing him IS seeing the Father." ## JW Claim Jesus was reflecting the Father's qualities — his love, wisdom, and power — like a perfect mirror. Seeing Jesus was like seeing what the Father is like, not seeing the Father himself. A son can resemble his father without being his father. ## Strategy This verse works best when combined with Hebrews 1:3 ('exact representation') and Colossians 2:9 ('fullness of deity'). Start by reading John 14:8-11 together. Philip asks to see the Father, and Jesus says seeing him IS seeing the Father. Ask: 'If I said seeing my ambassador is the same as seeing me, would that make sense? Can any creature fully reveal the invisible God?' Isaiah 40:18 asks 'To whom will you liken God?' and Exodus 33:20 says no one can see God and live — yet Jesus claims that seeing him IS seeing the Father. The only way this works is if Jesus shares the Father's divine nature. Note the NWT's own handling: in vv. 10-11 it inserts 'in union with' (not in the Greek), yet v. 9 is left essentially unchanged — even their own translation preserves the force of 'seen me = seen the Father.' The point is that only God can fully reveal God. ## Key Insight No creature can be the full revelation of the Creator. Isaiah 40:18 asks 'To whom will you liken God?' — the answer is no one. Yet Jesus claims to be the full revelation of the Father. If he does so truthfully, he must share the Father's nature — not merely imitate it. ## JW Responses & Counters ### Response 1 **JW says:** "Jesus was reflecting God's qualities, like Moses' face shone after being with God." **Counter:** Moses reflected a fading glory (2 Corinthians 3:7-13). While the NWT calls Jesus the 'reflection' of God's glory in Hebrews 1:3, it immediately adds that he is 'the exact representation of his very being.' Unlike a fading reflection on a human face, an 'exact representation of God's being' requires sharing that same nature. ### Response 2 **JW says:** "John 14:28 says 'the Father is greater than I' — so they can't be the same." **Counter:** Jesus said this while in his humbled, incarnate state (Philippians 2:5-8). A king who puts on a servant's clothes is still the king, even if he says 'the master of the house is greater than I' while serving at table. Jesus voluntarily took a lesser role without losing his divine nature. ### Response 3 **JW says:** "Seeing Jesus shows us what God is LIKE, not that Jesus IS God." **Counter:** But Jesus didn't say 'whoever has seen me has seen what the Father is like.' He said 'has seen the Father also.' The NWT renders it the same way. And Colossians 2:9 says 'in him all the fullness of the divine quality dwells bodily' — not some of it, all of it. Even with the NWT's softer rendering, 'all the fullness' leaves no room for a partial representation. ### Response 4 **JW says:** "'I am in the Father' means unity of purpose, not substance — like believers 'abide in' God." **Counter:** The NWT inserts 'in union with' in vv. 10-11, but the Greek simply says 'in' (en). Even granting 'union,' no believer ever says 'whoever has seen me has seen the Father.' The relationship Jesus describes goes far beyond the believer's relationship with God — it is a unique, ontological unity that no mere creature can claim. ### Response 5 **JW says:** "Agents can represent their sender — Jesus was God's agent." **Counter:** No agent in Scripture ever says 'seeing me IS seeing God.' Moses, the greatest OT prophet, never made such a claim. Angels refused worship. Prophets pointed away from themselves. Only Jesus says seeing him equals seeing the Father — because only God can fully reveal God. ## What to Avoid Don't get drawn into a debate about whether the Father and Son are the same person — that's modalism, not Trinitarianism. The point is that Jesus shares the Father's divine nature, not that they are the same person. ## Homework Read John 14:1-11 until you can retell Philip's request and Jesus' answer from memory, then read Isaiah 40:18 and Exodus 33:20 so you can say why "seen me, seen the Father" is so startling. In the NWT, check that verse 9 keeps "has seen the Father also" and see where verses 10-11 insert "in union with." Practise the doorstep question aloud. Prepare for the "reflecting God's qualities, like Moses' face" reply with Hebrews 1:3 and 2 Corinthians 3:7-13 ready, and for John 14:28 with Philippians 2:5-8. ## Next Moves - [The Fullness of Deity in Bodily Form](https://jw-apologetics.app/arguments/colossians2-9.md) - [Isaiah Saw Jesus' Glory](https://jw-apologetics.app/arguments/john12-isaiah6.md) - [Thomas' Confession: My Lord and My God](https://jw-apologetics.app/arguments/john20-28-thomas.md) - [Jesus Shared Jehovah's Glory](https://jw-apologetics.app/arguments/john17-glory.md)